Violence Recognition Management and Prevention a Review of 300

Disaster Direction Multiple Selection Questions :- appsc | upsc

1) In which Stage of Disaster harm Assessment is washed?
A. Warning phase
B. Impact Phase
C. Rescue stage
D. Re-Habilitation Phase
Answer: D

two) In relation to Disaster Preparedness, which 1 of the post-obit is more serious from response point of view?
A. 1st warning
B. 2d alert
Answer: B

3) A physical situation which may cause human being injury, damage to property or the environment, is called
A. Gamble
B. Risk
Respond: A

4) The likelihood of an undesired event occurring within a particular period or nether specified circumstances is known every bit
A. Hazard
B. Risk
Reply: B

5) Which of the following is the principal contributory cause for Pipeline Disasters in the globe?
A. Third-party Action
B. Corrosion
C. Mechanical failure
D. Operational failures
Answer: A

half dozen) Root Cause Analysis of Disasters can be done through which of the following methods?
A. HAZOP
B. Checklist
C. Effect Assay
D. Why-Why
Answer: D

seven) 'Blow-Out' is a Natural Disaster.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

8) The principle which takes into business relationship the precautions to be taken beingness on safer side and avoidance of taking undue risks from hazards, the damage potential of which is non yet fully known, is known as:
A. Guiding Principle
B. Adventure Cess Principle
C. Run a risk Analysis Principle
D. Precautionary Principle
Answer: D

9) The agreement or understanding that has been reached amidst various nearby industries to assistance each other during emergency is chosen:
A. Memorandum of Understanding
B. Understanding of Mock-exercise
C. Industrial Charter
D. Mutual-Aid Agreement
Answer: D

10) How many Safety Integrity Levels exists?
A. 1
B. 2
C. three
D. 4
Reply: D

Disaster Direction MCQs

11) Which of the following SIL levels represents Catastrophic impacts of a Disaster?
A. SIL-ane
B. SIL-2
C. SIL-3
D. SIL-four
Answer: D

12) What could be the Principal and Secondary Protections for protection of a vessel against Over-force per unit area situation?
A. PSH and PSV
B. PSL and ESS
C. LSL and ESD
D. FSL and FSV
Answer: A

13) In a Oil and Gas Drilling rig, an area within 4.5 m of the shale shaker in open air is considered equally:
A. Zone-1
B. Zone-2
C. Zone-0
Answer: A

fourteen) The area within 3 meter from the belch nozzle of the relief valve is considered equally:
A. Zone-0
B. Zone-2
C. Zone-1
Reply: B

15) Which of the following will be found on a Material Safety Information Sheet?
A. Spill and leak procedures
B. Health Hazard Data
C. Special protection Information
D. All of the to a higher place
Answer: D

xvi) Section 2 of an MSDS will have information virtually
A. Hazardous ingredirents
B. Fire and Explosion data
C. Reactivity data
D. Manufacturers' information
Respond: A

17) In case of an emergency involving a chemical or product, an emergency telephone number can exist found in which department of the MSDS?
A. Section ane
B. Section 2
C. Section 5
D. Department 8
Answer: A

18) The yellow portion of a NFPA diamond represents:
A. Wellness Hazard
B. Flammability Take chances
C. Reactivity Hazard
D. Special Adventure Information
Answer: B

19) The ill-health effect acquired by one-fourth dimension, sudden, loftier exposures is often called:
A. Chronic effect
B. Acute consequence
C. Systematic effect
Answer: B

20) Monitoring the levels of exposure to toxic substances is medically done through analysis of body fluids e.one thousand. blood, urine, expired air etc. The process is known as:
A. Status monitoring
B. Biological conditioning
C. Exposure monitoring
D. Biological monitoring
Answer: D

21) The ratio of Amount of toxic chemical to the IDLH value of the chemical is called:
A. Fire Load
B. Toxic Load
C. Pollution Load
D. Toxicological Load
Respond: B

22) Which of the following steps of Toxic Risk Cess exercise considers the possible routes of entry of chemicals into body and its reaction thereby?
A. 1st footstep
B. 2nd step
C. 3rd step
D. 4th step
Answer: C

23) About 2 ppm of Chlorine concentration in Air causes?
A. Irritation of eyes and nose
B. Irritation of throat
C. Intense coughing & fits
D. Immediate death
Answer: A

24) If 'Cash' is a hazard, theft is the consequence, then if 'electricity' is the hazard, what could be the consequence ?
A. Damage
B. Hearing loss
C. loss of h2o
D. shock
Answer: D

25) What is the purpose of risk identification in Disaster preparedness?
A. to place the probable causes of disasters
B. to identify the probable disaster scenarios
C. to quatify the consequences
D. to advise mitigation measures
Reply: B

26) 'Pareto Analysis' is a:
A. Run a risk quantification technique
B. Risk analysis technique
C. Risk mitigation technique
D. Hazard prioritization technique
Answer: D

27) 'HAZID' is done to conduct out safety hazard identification, what is information technology known equally which is used for identification of ecology issues?
A. ENVID
B. WBCSD
C. ENVDI
D. Sustainability
Answer: A

28) Atmospheric Stability Class D corresponds to which of the following atmospheric condition weather?
A. Slightly Stable
B. Stable
C. Highly unstable
D. Neutral
Respond: D

29) An estimated Risk of $two \times x^{-iv}$ per twelvemonth means:
A. One run a risk in 100 years
B. Ane chance in 10000 years
C. Two chances in 10000 years
D. Two chances in every grand years
Respond: C

30) When unacceptable risk is brought under the acceptability criteria through additional run a risk reduction measures, the identified take a chance is said to be within
A. Equally low as Regularly Possible (ALARP) zone
B. As depression as Reasonably Practicable (ALARP) zone
C. As low as Reasonably Possible (ALARP) zone
D. As low every bit Rationally Probable (ALARP) zone
Answer: B

31) In Run a risk Assay, Vulnerability Model represents:
A. How many persons will be effected due to exposure
B. How much area will be effected due to the upshot
C. How long the effect volition last in the community
D. How likely that the community will exist effected
Answer: A

32) Under damage criteria due to explosion pressure level wave, 0.3 bar over pressure represents that:
A. ten% houses volition get damaged
B. 90% houses will be seriously damaged
C. Windows of houses will be smashed
D. Glass of doors and windows volition break
Respond: B

33) The catastrophic failure of a force per unit area vessel due to intense heating from a torch fire or a astringent mechanical touch on is commonly known as:
A. UCVCE
B. CE
C. BLEVE
D. Cascading effect
Answer: C

34) In Risk Cess, 20/80 principle ways:
A. lxxx% of total hazard comes from twenty% of cases
B. twenty% of total run a risk originates from eighty% of cases
Answer: A

35) Which ane of the following has more damaging effect after a liquefied flammable gas release?
A. Early Ignition
B. Delayed Ignition
Reply: B

36) In Layer of Protection (LOP) Analysis, which of protection covers an 'onsite Emergency Programme'?
A. 1st Layer
B. 3rd Layer
C. fifth Layer
D. 4th Layer
Answer: D

37) Which of the following is a hazard quantification method?
A. FMEA
B. Fault-tree
C. HAZOP
D. What-if Analysis
Respond: B

38) Cause-Consequence Analysis (CCA) is a combination of:
A. Mistake-tree & Event tree Analyses
B. Fault-tree & HAZOP Analyses
C. MCA & Event tree Analyses
D. MCA & HAZOP Analyses
Reply: A

39) The roles and responsibilities identified for disaster responses under Disaster Management Plan is known as:
A. Incident Organogram
B. Disaster Response Structure
C. Incident Command Organisation
Reply: C

40) The responsibility of press briefing during a disaster event normally rests on:
A. Incident Controller
B. Public relation Controller
C. Send Controller
D. Security Controller
Reply: B

41) Whose responsibility normally it is to declare an Onsite Emergency in an industry?
A. Incident Controller
B. Site Master Controller
C. Central person (Fire and prophylactic)
Reply: B

42) Under which department of the Factories Act, 1948 (amended to 1987), an occupier of a factory has to formulate an Onsite Emergency Programme?
A. 41-B(4)
B. Section 13 – B(2)
C. Section 46 – B(5)
Answer: A

43) Indian Declension Guard has capabilities for responding to which tier of Oil spill contingencies?
A. Tier-I
B. Tier-2
C. Tier-Iii
Answer: B

44) Which of the following techniques are not used for Oil spill response?
A. Apply of booms and Skimming
B. Use of dispersants
C. Burning
D. Bio-recovery
Respond: B

45) A chancy chemical can be identified past which of the post-obit numbers?
A. ID Number
B. NFPA Number
C. UN Number
D. Take a chance index Number
Answer: C

46) Nether various zones created around an incident site for effective response, which one unremarkably used for command, command and support mobilization purposes?
A. Cold zone
B. Hot zones
C. Warm zone
Answer: A

47) Within which zone "Emergency Control Center" can exist situated?
A. Hot zone
B. Support zone
C. Warm zone
Respond: B

48) 'THERP' written report is related to:
A. Hazard Perception
B. Prophylactic Analysis
C. Human error
D. Work written report
Respond: C

49) Which of the following is non a technological factor used for Vulnerability assessment?
A. Process Safety
B. Private deviation
C. Communication failure
Answer: B

50) Which of the following is a human mistake in Disaster Management model?
A. Error of Omission
B. Typographical errors
C. Error of Commision
D. All of the above
Answer: D

51) Secondary fires are acquired due to which of the following phenomenon?
A. Wink back
B. Burn-back
C. Fire spread
D. domino upshot
Reply: B

52) What is the prophylactic level of oestrus radiation (in Kw/m^ii)for an average human being?
A. 1.75
B. 2.eight
C. half-dozen.four
D. 14.four
Reply: A

53) A Deep burn down, characterized by devastation of all skin layers is termed as:
A. 1st degree burn
B. 2nd degree burn
C. 3rd degree burn
Respond: C

54) A Probit equation used for calculation of effects due to:
A. Flammability
B. Toxicity
C. both Flammability and toxicity
Answer: C

55) In Take chances estimation, a F-N curve is referred to depict which of the following risks?
A. Individual Take a chance
B. Group Chance
C. Process Risk
Reply: B

56) The uncontrolled sudden fierce escape of well fluids during oil and gas exploitation activities is known as:
A. Blow out
B. Burn down out
C. explosion
D. Smash out
Answer: A

57) Which of the post-obit classifications of blowout causes pocket-size level of pollution?
A. Class I
B. Form II
C. Class Four
D. Class V
Answer: D

58) A normally directional well drilled to constitute a direct communication with the well under accident out, is known as:
A. New well
B. Rehabilitatory well
C. Relief well
D. killing well
Answer: C

59) Lethality (Pr) tin be calculated from Probit equation past:
A. Pr = a + b ln(c/t)
B. Pr = a + b ln(c.t)
C. Pr = a + b ln(c+t)
D. Pr = a + b ln(t/c)
Answer: B

60) Under which regulation the local authority is responsible for preparation of an offsite Emergency plan?
A. MSIHC Rules
B. Hazardous Chemical handling Rules
C. PMP Acts & Rules
Reply: A

61) Which of the following crisis groups are responsible for preparation of offsite response plan at local level?
A. State Crisis Group
B. Local Crisis Group
C. District Crisis Grouping
Answer: B

62) The purpose of Hazard maps is to identify and brandish the location of:
A. Chance zones
B. Risk zones
C. Vulnerability zones
D. Decontamination zones
Answer: A

63) Immediate danger area post-obit a toxic gas leak is based upon the substance's:
A. IDLH
B. STEL
C. TLV
D. Ceiling value
Answer: A

64) The maximum injury causing distance following a toxic gas release volition be dependent on the fabric'due south:
A. IDLH
B. STEL
C. TLV
D. Ceiling value
Answer: B

65) Evacuation maps are made based on concentration contours of a toxic release in:
A. Downwind direction
B. Cantankerous-current of air direction
C. both the directions
Answer: C

66) In Uncertainty analysis, if the uncertainties are related to the chances of an incident happening, information technology is called
A. Aleatory uncertainty
B. Epistemic uncertainty
Answer: A

67) An surface area surrounding an incident site where public may exist exposed to dangerous and life threatening concentrations of toxic materials is known as:
A. Initial isolation zone
B. Protective zone
C. Decontamination zone
Answer: A

68) An emergency action lawmaking designed to help the fire fighters to know readily the actions to be taken in case of fire or spillage of a particular chancy substance is called:
A. HAZCHEM code
B. UN Number
C. CAS Number
Answer: A

69) How many Hazard Class Labels exist for different chancy substances?
A. 10
B. nine
C. 7
D. v
Answer: B

70) The written emergency data carries by the driver of all vehicles carrying chancy substances is known equally:
A. HAZCHEM
B. TREMCARD
C. Emergency Information pane
Answer: B

71) Emergency Information Panel contains:
A. Class Lebel
B. Un Number
C. HAZCHEM code
D. All the higher up
Answer: D

72) The vehicle equipped with rescue and personal protective equipment to be used for rescue purposes is known as:
A. Rescue vehicle
B. Rescue trolley vehicle
C. Rescue Tender
Answer: A or C.

73) The Programme prepared for facilitating the prompt render to the normalcy and continuity of functioning subsequently a disaster is chosen:
A. Rescue Plan
B. Relief Program
C. Recovery Plan
Respond: C

74) Which of the following is not the role of Disaster Mitigation Planning?
A. Emergency Communication
B. Disaster warning system
C. Risk and vulnerability analysis
D. Insurance requirements
Respond: A

75) The data required for the training of a Disaster Plan is called:
A. Strategic information
B. Tactical Information
C. Operational Information
D. Statutory information
Answer: A

76) One of the more often than not used ways to communicate gamble of whatsoever hazardous fabric is:
A. MSDS
B. Pareto nautical chart
C. Emergency Information console
Answer: A

77) Area where head count are unremarkably taken afterward the evacuation of the affected area is known as:
A. Shelter area
B. Head-count area
C. Mustering area
D. Rescued area
Answer: C

78) Which of the following is an example of fixed hazard?
A. Toxic Gas release
B. Explosion
C. Pool fire
Answer: C

79) The technique utilized in analyzing disaster response preparedness in industry is called:
A. HAZOP
B. ER-HAZOP
C. What-if
D. Disaster Mapping
Respond: B

80) The type of personal protection required when the greatest potential for exposure to hazards exists is:
A. Level-A
B. Level-B
C. Level-C
D. Level-D
Answer: A

81) The first responders who usually experience strong emotional feelings while treatment emergencies is said to be under:
A. Critical stress
B. Critical Incident Stress
C. Critical Incident Call up
Answer: B

82) The best way to inspect the efficacy of the disaster preparedness is:
A. Walk-through survey
B. Table-top exercises
C. Mock drills at field
Answer: C

83) Which of the following situation arises to the human torso while responding to emergencies?
A. Torso rapidly produces Adrenaline
B. Eye beat out increases
C. Temperature increases
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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